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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication? 
A. account ID 
B. password 
C. PIN 
D. digest credentials 
Answer: D

A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers? 
A. Alternate Extension 
B. Notification Devices 
C. Alternate Names 
D. Message Settings 
E. Caller Input 
F. Mailbox 
Answer: A

Which scenario allows user A in partition X to call user B in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? 
A. User B in partition X is not assigned to any CSS. 
B. User B in partition Y assigns both partitions to CSS-X. 
C. User B is not assigned to any partition or CSS. 
D. User B is assigned to partition Y and assigns to CSS-X. 
Answer: B

Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) 
A. Bulk administration tool 
B. LDAP 
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL 
D. Outlook 
E. Presence 
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions 
Answer: A,B,C

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager protocol communicates with collaboration endpoints? 
A. SCCP 
B. RTP 
C. SIP 
D. CDP 
Answer: C

What is the maximum number of digits that an ephone PIN can have to allow after-hour exempt calling privileges? 
A. 4 
B. 6 
C. 7 
D. 8 
E. 9 
Answer: D

A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user's phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box 
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box 
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box 
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box 
Answer: C

What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network? 
A. FXS 
B. FXO 
C. E and M 
D. Serial 
Answer: B


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Ticket 5 R1ACL 

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: 
The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). 
show run by yourself to obtain the following information: 
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. 
Configuration on R1 
! interface Serial0/0/0/1 
description link to ISP 
ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 
ip access-group edge_security in 
ip nat outside 
ip virtual-reassembly 
ntp brasdcast client 
net broadcast key 1 
no cdp enable 
!! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 
ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 
! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any 

On which device is the fault condition located? 
A. R1 
B. R2 
C. R3 
D. R4 
E. DSW1 
F. DSW2 
G. ASW1 
Answer: A 


R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. 
Which two statements are true? (Choose two) 
(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) 
A. They are not neighbors 
B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 
C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) 
D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA 
E. R2 should be configured as stub 
Answer: BC

The fault condition is related to which technology? 
A. NTP 
B. IP DHCP Server 
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing 
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing 
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution 
F. IPv6 RIP Routing 
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing 
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability 
I. IPv4 layer 3 security 
Answer: G

What is the solution to the fault condition? 
A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command. 
Answer: D

Ticket 4 NATACL 

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: 

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). 
show run by yourself to obtain the following information: 
Configuration on R1 
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! 
ip access-list standard nat_pool 
permit 10.1.0.0 
! interface Serial0/0/0/1 
ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 
ip nat outside 
! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 
ip nat inside 
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT 
ip ospd authentication message-digest 

On Which device is the fault condition located? 
A. R1 
B. R2 
C. R3 
D. R4 
E. DSW1 
F. DSW2 
G. ASW1 
Answer: A 


What is the solution of the fault condition? 
A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command 
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command. 
C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command 
D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command 
Answer: A

The tunnel between R1 and R3 is not coming up. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) 
(Topology with a GRE tunnel and the outputs provided are show ip int brief and tunnel source and destination) 
A. Tunnel source int Eth0/0 is down 
B. No route from R1 to R3 loopback0 (tunnel destination) 
C. source and destination not in same subnet 
D. http://bbs.hh010.com/ 
Answer: AB

The Fault Condition is related to which technology? 
A. BGP 
B. NAT 
C. IP NAT 
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing 
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution 
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing 
G. IPv4 layer 3 security 
Answer: C

What is the solution of the fault condition? 
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command 
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command 
C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command 
D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command 
Answer: C

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol? 
A. MSTP 
B. RSTP 
C. PVST+ 
D. Mono Spanning Tree 
Answer: A

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem? 
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. 
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. 
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. 
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line. 
Answer: D

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? 
A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone. 
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. 
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address. 
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network. 
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range. 
Answer: A

What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame? 
A. CSMA/CA 
B. CSMA/CD 
Answer: B

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.) 
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch. 
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted. 
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. 
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes. 
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. 
Answer: AB

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning', which log messages will the router send? 
A. 0-4 
B. 0-5 
C. 0-6 
D. 0-2 
E. 0-1 
Answer: A 

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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below.
What is the minimum version of clustered Data ONTAP that supports shelf hot-remove? 
A. 8.2.1 
B. 7.3.3 
C. 8.0.1 
D. 8.3 
Answer: A 


While reviewing a controller, you find that an aggregate aggr1 made of 6 TB hard-disk drives has two RAID groups, one with 14 disks and the other with eight disks. 
Which action caused the RAID groups to be different? 
A. The aggregate was created with the RAID group option set to 2. 
B. The aggregate was created with advanced drive partitioning. 
C. The aggregate was moved from one controller to its partner. 
D. The aggregate was created from the command line using the default configuration. 
Answer: D

A customer enables Storage Efficiency on a volume, intending to use compression only as data is written. The customer observes that compression is working, but deduplication processes are still running on a scheduled basis. The customer wants to use compression without deduplication as the data is written to the volume. 
Which action will accomplish this task? 
A. Enable post compression on the volume. 
B. Create a custom efficiency policy and attach to the SVM. 
C. Attach the default efficiency policy to the volume. 
D. Attach the inline-only efficiency policy to the volume. 
Answer: D

Which two backup engines are supported within clustered Data ONTAP? (Choose two.) 
A. SMT ape 
B. dump 
C. tape 
D. xcopy 
Answer: A,B 


What is the maximum number of nodes allowed in an FAS8000 series with a SAN configuration? 
A. 24 
B. 8 
C. 4 
D. 2 
Answer: B 


A customer has lost access to shares being used by an application. 
What are three troubleshooting steps the administrator should take? (Choose three.) 
A. Verify that the admin SVM is running on the node being accessed by the customer. 
B. Verify that the LIF resides on its home port. 
C. Verify that the LIFs in the SVM are all up and active. 
D. Verify that the SVM has CIFS running, that the share exists, and is online. 
E. Verify that there is network connectivity between the SMB client and the SVM. 
Answer: C,D,E

A customer created a volume with the wrong language code. 
What should a customer do to correct this problem? 
A. Delete the volume and create a volume with the correct language code. 
B. Take the volume offline and change the language code. 
C. Change the language code on the volume. 
D. Change the language code on the parent storage virtual machine. 
Answer: A

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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below.
An administrator is working with an application group to resolve a performance problem within the environment. They are experiencing slow read speeds and are trying to determine what could be done to improve performance. 
What would you add to the system to improve performance? 
A. NVRAM 
B. FlashCache 
C. RAM 
D. processors 
Answer: B 


While reviewing a controller, you find that an aggregate aggr1 made of 6 TB hard-disk drives has two RAID groups, one with 14 disks and the other with eight disks. 
Which action caused the RAID groups to be different? 
A. The aggregate was created with the RAID group option set to 2. 
B. The aggregate was created with advanced drive partitioning. 
C. The aggregate was moved from one controller to its partner. 
D. The aggregate was created from the command line using the default configuration. 
Answer: D

Which statement is true about establishing a SnapMirror relationship in clustered data ONTAP? 
A. It sets up the relationship, but does not start the initial transfer 
B. It sets up the relationship on the source node only 
C. It sets up the relationship and starts the initial data transfer 
D. It sets up the relationship and creates the destination volume 
Answer: A

Which two must already exist before creating a subnet? (Choose two.) 
A. storage virtual machine 
B. failover group 
C. broadcast domain 
D. IPspace 
Answer: C,D 


A customer has LUNs that are being accessed through iSCSI. The applications have experienced increased LUN latency over the last couple of days. 
Which two components should you review to determine what caused the rise in latency? (Choose two.) 
A. node CPU utilization 
B. FC switch performance 
C. Ethernet network performance 
D. cluster management switch performance 
Answer: A,C

What are the two valid settings for fractional reserve? (Choose two.) 
A. 100% 
B. 20% 
C. 0% 
D. 50% 
Answer: A,C 

An administrator creates an account for a new user, and wants this user to have limited capabilities accessing SSH. The administrator defined the account, but the user still has full control. 
Which two settings would the administrator use to correct this problem? (Choose two.) 
A. the user account settings in OnCommand system Manager 
B. the user account settings of the admin account 
C. the user account settings in Windows Active Directory Users and Computers 
D. the user account settings in the clustershell 
Answer: A,D

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Share some CCDP 300-320 exam questions and answers below.
Which technology allows network managers to centrally manage the VLAN database? 
A. VTP 
B. VLAN 
C. VSS 
D. vPC 
Answer: A

An HSRP design requirement states that preemption must be enabled for the active switch, which is a Cisco 4507R. Assume a boot time of 300 seconds. 
Which setting of the preemption delay timer minimizes the loss of traffic? 
A. 50 seconds 
B. 100 seconds 
C. 150 seconds 
D. 200 seconds 
Answer: D 


What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? 
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. 
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. 
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. 
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. 
Answer: B

Which feature can be used in the Cisco Nexus 7000 to create a snapshot of the current configuration? 
A. Cisco FabricPath 
B. HSRP 
C. Rollback 
D. vPC 
Answer: C

Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS? 
A. Full mesh 
B. Partial mesh 
C. Star 
D. Bus 
E. Ring 
Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit. 



Which two features can enable high availability for first-hop Layer 3 redundancy? (Choose two.) 
A. VPC 
B. IGMP V2 
C. VRRP 
D. PIM 
E. HSRP 
Answer: C, E

Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why? 
A. UDP, because it is connectionless 
B. SSH, because the username and password are encrypted 
C. Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear 
D. MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol 
Answer: B

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-360 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.) 
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller is installed. 
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installation documents. 
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately after the installation is complete. 
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems. 
E. Test all the customer¡¯s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly. 
Answer: B,E

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. 
Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.) 
A. Use APs with external antennas. 
B. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput. 
C. Use APs with built-in antennas. 
D. Use a battery pack to power APs. 
E. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements. 
F. Use APs with directional antennas. 
Answer: C,D,E

What is a common cause for signal attenuation? 
A. Cinder block wall 
B. Office window 
C. Metal door 
D. Glass wall 
Answer: C

You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the mount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. 
How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management? 
A. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method. 
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method 
C. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the 1 + 1 redundancy method and clients SO. 
D. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method. 
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N + 1 redundancy method. 
F. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method. 
Answer: B

An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. 
What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration? 
A. 225 feet 
B. 80 feet 
C. 150 feet 
D. 100 feet 
Answer: B

An 802.11n implementation is being discussed. Users are satisfied with the potential 300-450 Mbps throughput of new 802.11n APs. Which three bandwidth requirements are used to calculate per client bandwidth through an 802.11n AP network? (Choose three.) 
A. 450 Mbps throughput is the client max for 5-GHz radio. 
B. Channel bonding on 5 GHz is required for a client to have a 300 Mbps WiFi link. 
C. 300 Mbps throughput is the client max for 2.4-GHz radio. 
D. The remaining bandwidth is divided per device when more clients are connected to one AP. 
E. 100 Mbps Ethernet switch port is a potential bottleneck. 
F. CleanAir helps clear noise for 802.11n channel bonding to work. 
Answer: A,C,E

An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration? 
A. 225 feet 
B. 80 feet 
C. 150 feet 
D. 100 feet 
Answer: B


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