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Share some HP ExpertONE Certification HP2-B149 exam questions and answers below.
Which is a challenge faced in contractual partnerships? 
A. more time required to understand customer needs 
B. declining hardware sales with decreasing margins 
C. less competitive pricing than transaction-based sales 
D. lack of customer loyalty or a predictive revenue stream 
Answer: A

A sales rep wishes to find a product from the HP printing portfolio that matches the customer’s desired features.Which tool within HP Sales Central should the sales rep consultant? 
A. Sustainability Sales Tool 
B. Help Me Choose tools 
C. Solutions 
D. Custom Product Catalog Tool 
Answer: B

Which print mode in the A3 PageWide printer provides the lowest cost per page (CPP)? 
A. Dynamic Color mode 
B. General Office Color mode 
C. Accent Color mode 
D. Professional Color mode 
Answer: B

A small start-up needs help managing their printing fleet.Which manageability solution is best suited for their needs? 
A. JetAdvantage Security Manager 
B. Universal Print Driver (UPD) 
C. JetAdvantage Insights 
D. Web JetAdmin 
Answer: A


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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-668 exam questions and answers below.
Which IBM XIV replication feature provides the ability for a remote target volume to be initialized without requiring the contents of the source volume to be re-replicated over an inter-site link? 
A. Offline Initialization 
B. Quick Initialization 
C. Synchronous Replication 
D. Asynchronous Replication 
Answer: A

Which IBM products should the technical specialist propose to a customer who is using disk-based backups to meet regulatory requirements for low recovery time objectives? 
A. IBM Spectrum Control Advance 
B. IBM Spectrum Archive 
C. IBM Spectrum protect 
D. IBM Spectrum Control Base 
Answer: C

A customer wants to improve overall workload performance and is considering adding either an IBM Storwize V7000F or an IBM FlashSystem A9000 to the environment.Which key performance characteristic differentiates these two products? 
A. Latency 
B. Connect time 
C. Cache hit rate 
D. Queue time 
Answer: A

A customer needs to exchange encrypted data cartridges with another company. A competitor offers a solution that encrypts the data with static keys loaded the tape drives. IBM proposes IBM TS1150 tape drives using the built-in encryption feature.Which competitive advantage does the IBM TS1150 solution provide? 
A. It achieves better throughput by encrypting and compressing data at the same time. 
B. It stores keys in the drive that can then be exported to partners in a secure format. 
C. It compresses the data before encrypting to achieve a better compression ratio. 
D. it writes a unique encrypted data key on the cartridge using public/private key pairs. 
Answer: D

Which function provides a high availability feature with dual-site, active-active access to a volume in IBM Spectrum Virtualize? 
A. Hypersite 
B. Hyperledger 
C. Hyper-Scale 
D. HyperSwap 
Answer: D

What is the complete source of information for power, cooling, and floor space requirements for IBM tape products? 
A. Preinstall TDA checklist 
B. Product announcement letters 
C. Installation and Planning Guide 
D. IBM Storage System Interoperation Center 
Answer: A


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Share some CCENT 100-105 exam questions and answers below.
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments? 
A. Physical 
B. Data-link 
C. Transport 
D. Network 
Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. 



All devices attached to the network are shown. 
How many collision domains are present in this network? 
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 6 
D. 9 
E. 15 
Answer: E 


Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments? 
A. Physical 
B. Data-link 
C. Transport 
D. Network 
Answer: C 


Refer to the exhibit. 



Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. 
What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request? 
A. 192.168.0.1 
B. 172.16.0.50 
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0 
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2 
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff 
F. 255.255.255.255 
Answer: E 


A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. 
What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.) 



A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. 
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. 
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192 
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host. 
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type. 
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0 
Answer: A, F 


Topic 1: Network Fundamentals 

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) 
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. 
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. 
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. 
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. 
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. 
Answer: A, B, E 


Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model? 



A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 
E. Option E 
Answer: B 


Refer to the exhibit. 



Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. 
What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2? 



A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 
E. Option E 
Answer: B 


Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required? 
A. HTTP 
B. IP 
C. TCP 
D. Telnet 
E. UDP 
Answer: E 


DRAG DROP 



Answer: 




Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) 
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. 
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. 
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. 
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. 
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. 
Answer: A,B,E

Refer to the exhibit. 



The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. 
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) 
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. 
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. 
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. 
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0. 
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only. 
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch. 
Answer: B, D 


Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets? 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 8 
E. 252 
F. 254 
Answer: B 


Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.) 
A. layer 3 support 
B. port security 
C. redundant components 
D. VLANs 
E. PoE 
Answer: B, D 


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Share some CCDP 300-320 exam questions and answers below.
An engineer notices that many BGP peers utilize the same configuration parameters. What can the engineer configure to simplify BGP neighbor statements and generate more efficient BGP peer updates? 
A. peer groups 
B. policy templates 
C. session templates 
D. peer address families 
Answer: A

What network technology provides Layer 2 high availability between the access and distribution layers? 
A. HSRP 
B. MEC 
C. EIGRP 
D. GLBP 
Answer: B

What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area? 
A. 5 
B. 30 
C. 50 
D. 60 
Answer: D

Which multicast implementation strategy provides load sharing and redundancy by configuring intradomain RPs as MSDP peers? 
A. anycast RP 
B. auto-RP 
C. bootstrap router 
D. static RP 
Answer: A 


What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses? 
A. 255.255.255.0 
B. 255.255.252.0 
C. 255.255.255.252 
D. 255.255.255.240 
Answer: C

Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network? 
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm 
B. Johnson's algorithm 
C. Dijkstra's algorithm 
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm 
Answer: C

What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses? 
A. 255.255.255.0 
B. 255.255.252.0 
C. 255.255.255.252 
D. 255.255.255.240 
Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. 



A network engineer manually reconfigures the BGP configuration on newly upgraded router R1. 
However, the BGP neighbor relationship does not come up with the directly connected neighbor router. 
What is causing the failure of the BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R2? 
A. An incorrect neighbor IP address for router R2 is configured on router R1. 
B. An incorrect neighbor AS number is configured on router R1 for router R2. 
C. The wrong BGP authentication password is configured on router R1. 
D. Router R1 must configure the R2 loopback address as the neighbor IP address. 
Answer: C

Which option is the Cisco preferred, most versatile, and highest-performance way to deploy IPv6 in existing IPv4 environments? 
A. dual stack 
B. hybrid 
C. service block 
D. dual service 
Answer: A

Which technology fulfills these requirements? 
• Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data. 
• This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell. 
A. PPP 
B. Frame Relay 
C. ATM 
D. MPLS 
E. X.25 
Answer: C

Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications? 
A. IntServ 
B. DiffServ 
C. LLQ 
D. ToS 
E. DSCP 
Answer: A 


Which Nexus feature enables you to support server connectivity with one topology and address requirement for both high availability and high bandwidth? 
A. vPC 
B. vPC+ 
C. Stackwise 
D. EvPC 
Answer: D 


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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam questions and answers below.
A customer is configuring LAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer has two fabric interconnects and would like to associate the pin group with only one interconnect. 
Which statement about this configuration is true? 
A. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect, and the other fabric interconnect will not be usable. 
B. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can only associate the pin group with both fabric interconnects; you cannot associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect. 
C. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect or with both fabric interconnect. This is a supported configuration. 
D. This configuration is not supported in a Cisco UCS domain. 
Answer: C

Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.) 
A. VSS 
B. border 
C. router 
D. server 
E. STP 
F. client 
Answer: B, D

Refer to the exhibit. 



Which tab would be the most useful for troubleshooting a blade discovery problem? 
A. Faults 
B. Events 
C. FSM 
D. Servers 
Answer: C

Looking at the Equipment > Chassis > Servers > Server X view from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which tab would you select to identify the fabric interconnect uplink associated with a given virtual circuit? 
A. Paths 
B. vNIC Paths 
C. Virtual Circuit Paths 
D. VIF Paths 
Answer: D

UCS-A# scope eth-uplink 
UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a 
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3 
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23 
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive 
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer 
What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS blade server? 
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port 
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A 
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B 
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port 
Answer: A

While attempting to boot a Cisco UCS server from SAN, you are unable to see the LUN. 
Which of these are causing the problem? (Choose three.) 
A. VHBA template 
B. RAID policy 
C. zoning 
D. LUN ID 
E. vACLs 
F. disjoint fabrics 
Answer: A, C, D

A customer calls in a trouble ticket complaining of unacceptable read I/O latency on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server with an LSI MegaRAID 9260-8i with an 8-disk RAID-10 virtual disk. 
As you validate the RAID controller configuration, which of these configured items impacts read performance at the controller level? 
A. all disks are 146GB 6 Gb SAS 15K RPM SFF 
B. read ahead cache is enabled 
C. BGI rate = 0 
D. strip size = 256k 
E. no hot spare 
Answer: D

Which command sequence in the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server CLI sends tech support data to a TFTP server? 
A. ucs-c250 / # scope cimc 
ucs-c250 /cimc # scope tech-support 
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz 
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# commit 
B. ucs-c250 / # scope system 
ucs-c250 /system # scope tech-support 
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz 
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# commit 
C. ucs-c250 / # scope support 
ucs-c250 /support # scope tech-support 
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz 
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# commit 
D. ucs-c250 / # scope fault 
ucs-c250 /fault # scope tech-support 
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz 
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# commit 
Answer: A

The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these? (Choose four.) 
A. which FSM task is being executed 
B. the current state of an FSM task 
C. the status of the previous FSM task 
D. any error codes returned while processing 
E. all completed FSM tasks 
F. multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries 
G. multiple FSM tasks that failed 
Answer: A, B, C, D

A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. 
So far they have configured the following: 
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode. 
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability. 
There are no overlapping VLANs. 
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network. 
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. 
What is the issue? 
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network. 
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks. 
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network. 
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured. 
Answer: C

When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM? 
A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab 
B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab 
C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab 
D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab 
Answer: D

As a Cisco UCS administrator, you have a large deployment of C-Series servers. You decide to integrate these into a Cisco UCS Manager environment to simplify management. 
Which two of these will you need to purchase? (Choose two.) 
A. two fabric interconnects 
B. a dedicated Cisco IMC 
C. two fabric extenders 
D. two I/O modules 
Answer: A, C

A Cisco UCS chassis has two ports on I/O Module 1 connected to Fabric Interconnect A, and two ports on I/O Module 2 connected to Fabric Interconnect B. The I/O modules are connected to ports 1 and 2 on their respective fabric interconnects, and end host mode is configured. 
After a link failure occurs on port 1 of I/O Module 1, what happens to the traffic that was pinned to that link? 
A. The traffic fails until the link issue is resolved. 
B. The traffic is repinned to I/O Module 2 link 1, which is connected to Fabric Interconnect B. 
C. The traffic is repinned to the remaining link between I/O Module 1 and Fabric Interconnect A. 
D. The traffic is repinned automatically to Fabric Interconnect B. 
Answer: C

At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles? 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 5 
D. 10 
E. unlimited 
Answer: A

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Share some CCDA 200-310 exam questions and answers below.
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.) 
A. NetFlow 
B. FWSM 
C. ISE 
D. VRRP 
E. sFLOW 
Answer: A,B,C

What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.) 
A. Use organizational input. 
B. Perform a traffic analysis. 
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application. 
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees. 
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network. 
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network. 
Answer: A,B,E

When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options? 
A. Will the switches be required to provide inline power? 
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise? 
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response? 
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN? 
Answer: D

What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus network design? 
A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge 
B. the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP) 
C. the routing abilities of the host devices 
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core 
Answer: A

A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics: 
• existing AAA Server 
• Cisco Catalyst switches 
• minimal added investments 
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend? 
A. NAC Appliance 
B. Cisco IBNS 
C. CSM 
D. Cisco Security MARS 
Answer: B

What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design? 
A. Operate 
B. Optimize 
C. Design 
D. Implement 
Answer: A

OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two.) 
A. All areas need to connect back to area 0. 
B. The OSPF process number on each router should match. 
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0. 
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links. 
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment. 
Answer: A,E

What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.) 
A. existing documentation 
B. new documentation 
C. existing network management software 
D. new network management tools 
E. management personnel 
F. technical personnel 
Answer: A,C,D

Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.) 
A. RIPv1 
B. RIPv2 
C. BGP 
D. OSPF 
E. EIGRP 
Answer: D,E


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